man and his court

Does a man’s Court follow the man and is it a common law court similar to the “King and his Court”

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Is the system corrupt or do we just need to be man enough to gain access?

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I firmly believe when a man is present, so also is his court.

If a man can hold, and not surrender his court to the legal society, then he shall have access to common law.

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== example one:

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Acts 25:16 is a great example of how common law is superior to codes or statutes.

Described in the book of Acts is your right to face your accuser — not just the witnesses..!!!

Think of how that might be important when your accuser is the State or IRS instead of Bob or Jim..?

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== example two:

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It is stated many times in the Bible that on the testimony of two or more witnesses shall a thing be established… likewise, it is expressly stated in the Constitution that a man can only be found guilty of the crime of treason upon the testimony of two man to the same act.

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These two common law examples have their roots in the Bible yet are not written into the Bill of Rights, so how does [a] man access these rights..?

I believe these rights can only be accessed by [a] man who knows how to bring the law forward through the 9th Amendment.

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Another common law right people have no idea about is forgiveness, which again, can only be accessed through the 9th amendment.

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Whereas the current government was expressly instituted among us not to cause harm to man but for the purpose of securing rights (which is property), they have no legitimate capacity to BAR man’s access to man’s common law, but they may have a duty to test all [persons] that appear before them to insure imposter’s do not take advantage of the system created only for the benefit of man.